Answer Key of BHU PET Applied Microbiology 2012 (Part 1)
Answer key of BHU M. Sc (PET) Applied Microbiology Entrance Exam 2012. Download Old Question Papers of BHU Applied Microbiology from 2011 to 2019.
Q1. Fermentation process to manufacture ethyl alcohol is :
(1) An aerobic process
(2) An anaerobic process
(3) A polymerization process
(4) A catalytic aerobic process
Q2. The term ‘anaerobic’ means :
(1) Without bacteria
(2) Without CO,
(3) Without ATP
(4) Without 02
Q.3 Yeast contains :
(1) Invertase only
(2) Zymase only
(3) Both invertase and zymase
(4) Neither invertase nor zymase
Q4. Which gas is produced during fermentation?
(1) CO
(2) CO2
(3) Cl2
(4) 02
Q5. What is vinegar?
(1) Methanol
(2) Ethanol
(3) Formic acid
(4) Acetic acid
Q6. The source of sucrose in growth media required for industrial fermentation is_:
(1) Corn sugar
(2) Milk whey
(3) Sugarbeet molasses
(4) Soybean meal
Q7. Acetic acid is produced by :
(1) Genus Gluconobacter
(2) Members of genus Acetobacter
(3) Both Gluconobacter and Acetobacter
(4) Aspergillus species
Q8. Which of the following acid is produced by incomplete oxidation rather than a true fermentation?
(1) Gluconic acid
(2) Acetic acid
(3) Citric acid
(4) Lactic acid
Q9. Growth in a closed system affected by nutrient limitation and waste product accumulation is called:
(1) Batch culture
(2) Ascus culture
(3) flocculation
(4) Tribulation
Q10. In fermenter the top portion left without broth is called:
(1) Shaft
(2) Head space
(3) Impeller
(4) Sparger
Q11. For industrial production of ethanol, the yeast used is :
(1) K. pneumonia
(2) K. fragilis
(3) S. cerevisiae
(4) Both (2) and (3)
Q12. Overheating of fermentor during fermentation is controlled by :
(1) Cooling jacket
(2) Steam
(3) Cool air
(4) None of these
Q13. Doubling time is:
(1) The rate of growth per unit time
(2) The time for the population to double in number/mass
(3) The number of times the inoculums has replicated
(4) All of the above
Q14. “It is the enzyme zymase, not yeast itself responsible for fermenting the sugars” was shown by :
(1) Buchner
(2) Mendel
(3) Linnaeus
(4) Muller
Q15. In Heteroladic fermentation how many molecules of pyruvate arc converted to lactate?
(1) Two molecules
(3) Three molecules
(2) One molecule
(4) None of the above
Q16. The word ‘Fermentation’ is derived from the Latin verb “fervere” which means:
(1) To boil
(3) To cook
(2) To respire
(4) None of the above
Q17. Which of the following is a beneficial function performed by bacteria?
(1) Control insect populations
(2) Directly provide food for human
(3) Decompose organic material and recycle elements
(4) Cause disease
Q18. Disinfection is defined as :
(1) Use of chemical to treat living cells
(2) Use of chemical to treat inert surface
(3) Removal or destruction of all form of microbes
(4) Partial removal of microbes
Q19. Which of the following is true for sanitization?
(1) Done by steam under pressure
(2) Treatment by chemical antimicrobials
(3) May be done with high tempt washing or by clipping unto a chemical disinfectant
(4) Done with the Help of Antibiotics
Q20. Branded product ‘Dettol’ used in personal hygiene, is an :
(1) Antiseptic agent
(3) Sanitizer
(2) Disinfectant
(4) Fermented product
Q21. which of the following about E. coli is not true?
(1) E. coli is a part of the gastric flora of humans
(2) E. coli is beneficial in human intestine
(3) A disease-causing strain of E. coli causes bloody diarrhea
(4) None of the above
Q22. Which comes under the ‘prevention’ category?
(1) Vaccine
(2) Antibiotics
(3) Analgesics
(4) None of the Above
Explanation: There are three levels of prevention: improving the overall health of the population (primary prevention) improving (secondary prevention) improving treatment and recovery (tertiary prevention)
Q23. Which of the following is the beneficial activity of microorganisms?
(1) Some microorganisms use carbon dioxide
(2) Some microorganisms provide nitrogen for plant growth
(3) Some microorganisms are used in sewage treatment
(4) All of the above
Q24. Which of the following is a valid scientific name?
(1) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
(2) Tubercle bacillus
(3) BaciJills tuberculosis
(4) fusarium trichosis
Q25. Which of the following enzymes is used for glucose detection in blood?
(1) Glucose isomerase
(3) Amyloglucosidase
(2) Glucose oxidase
(4) Luciferase
Q26. Which of the following is true for an antibiotic?
(1) It kills or inhibits the growth of bacteria
(2) Produced by microorganisms
(3) Most of the antibiotics arc now chemically modified (semisynthetic)
(4) All of the above
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Q27. Drug sensitivity is necessary:
(1) For relapse or re-treatment cases
(3) For Drug resistance studies
(2) When drug resistance is suspected
(4) All of the above
Q28. “Medical mycology” is the study of:
(1) Mycobacterium
(2) Medicine
(3) Fungi
Q29. Candida species causes opportunistic infections in :
(1) Immunocompromised person
(3) Cancer patients
(2) AIDS patients
(4) All of the above
Explanation: These Candida species are potential pathogens that can result in local or systemic infections in immunocompromised patients with cancer.Candida is a common opportunistic pathogen during the course of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) disease progression. Changes in the clinical severity of candidiasis and the Candida species prevalence profile may be a reflection of immunological changes in HIV positive patients.
Q30. Characteristics of Gram-positive bacteria are:
(1) Stained dark blue or violet in Gram staining
(2) Thick peptidoglycan layer
(3) Cytoplasmic lipid membrane
(4) All of the above
Explanation: Gram-positive bacteria contain (a)Cytoplasmic lipid membrane (b)Thick peptidoglycan layer, (c) Teichoic acids and lipoids are present, forming lipoteichoic acids, which serve as chelating agents, and also for certain types of adherence. (d) Peptidoglycan chains that are cross-linked to form rigid cell walls by a bacterial enzyme DD-transpeptidase (e) a much smaller volume of periplasm than that in gram-negative bacteria.
Q31. Gram-negative bacteria not stained dark blue or violet in Cram staining is:
(1) Due to the presence of outer polysaccharide layer on peptidoglycan in cell wall
(2) Due to negative charge
(3) Due to cytoplasmic lipid membrane
(4) None of the above
Explanation:Gram-positive bacteria have a thick mesh-like cell wall made of peptidoglycan (50–90% of cell envelope), and as a result are stained purple by crystal violet, whereas gram-negative bacteria have a thinner layer (10% of cell envelope), so do not retain the purple stain and are counter-stained pink by safranin.
Q32. Opportunistic infections are due to :
(1) Malnutrition
(2) Recurrent infections
(3) Immuno-suppression
(4) All of the above
Q33. Herpes virus is a :
(1) Family of viruses
(2) Cause latent infections
(3) Causes disease in animals only
(4) Both (1) and (2)
Q34. Bacterial flora present in water is :
(1) Entamoeba
(2) E. Coli
(3) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
(4) All of the above
Explanation:Entamoeba is a genus of Amoebozoa found as internal parasites or commensals of animals. Pseudomonas aeruginosa can be spread in hospitals via the hands of healthcare workers, or by hospital equipment that is not properly cleaned. Pseudomonas infections are considered opportunistic infections. This means that the organism only causes disease when a person’s immune system is already impaired. E. Coli is an enteric bacteria that spread through the water. This coliform bacteria is mainly found in the intestine of the animal.
Q35. Bacteria responsible for formation of curd from milk is :
(1) Lactobacilli
(3) Cocci
(2) Coliform bacteria
(4) None of the above
Q36. Genetically modified cultivars of which of the following plants are available?
(1) Herbicide-resistant cotton
(3) Salt resistant tomatoes
(2) Insecticide producing cotton
(4) All these
Explanation:Herbicide-tolerant crops (Gossypium hirsutum) are designed to tolerate specific broad-spectrum herbicides, which kill the surrounding weeds, but leave the cultivated crop intact.
Q37. The Ti plasmid from which plant pathogen is used to transfer plant genes between species?
(1) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(3) Haemophilus influenzae
(2) Escherichia coli
(4) Salmonella typhimurium
Q38. Some micro-organisms produce poisonous substances known as :
(1) Enzymes
(2) Toxins
(3) Coagulator
(4) Hyaluronidase
Q39. Root nodules of leguminous plants are produced by the following wherein they fix nitrogen:
(1) Pseudomonas
(2) Rhizobium
(3) Azotobacter
(4) Anabaena
Q40. Heterocyst performs:
(1) Photosynthesis
(2) photosynthesis and nitrogen fixation
(3) Nitrogen fixation
(4) Respiration
Q41. The best and easy way to control crop pest is by :
(1) Crop rotation
(2) Chemicals
(3) Quarantine
(4) Biological control
Q42. The ……………… is where organisms are found on and in the aerial surface plants roots.
(1) Rhizosphere
(2) Microfilm
(3) Phyllospherc
(4) Rhizoplane
Explanation: Aerial surface of plant roots refers to those portions of roots which are remain above the ground. So, the correct answer is Rhizoplane, because rhizoplane is the region where the root surface is in contact with soil and corresponds to the inner limit of the rhizosphere
Q43. The function of growth-promoting rhizobacteria is to :
(1) Decompose the organic matter secreted by the plant making the nutrients available to the plants again
(2) Stimulate the mineral uptake by inhibiting activities of other bacteria in the vicinity
(3) Enhance mycorrhizal activity
(4) Promote plant growth by producing chemical signals
Q44. The Nitrogen fixation form of Rhizobium is called:
(1) Bacteroid
(2) Symbiosome
(3) Infection thread
(4) T-plasmid
Q45. Which of the following herbicide is an amino acid synthesis inhibitor?
(1) Fosamine
(2) Hexazinonc
(3) 2,4-D
(4) Glyphosate
Q46. Which of the following herbicide is a photosynthetic inhibitor?
(1) Hexazinone
(2) Fosamine
(3) Glyphosat
(4) 2,4-D
Explanation: Hexazinone is a broad-spectrum residual and contacts herbicide, rapidly absorbed by the leaves and roots. It moves through the conductive tissues to the leaves, where it blocks the photosynthesis of the plant within the chloroplasts.
Q47. Diversity of the members of the rhizosphere community varies with:
(1) Plant species and age
(2) Location on the root and soil properties
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) None of the above
Q48. Nitrobacter converts:
(1) Nitrites to nitrates
(3) N, to nitrates
(2) Nt!, to nitrites
(4) None of these
Q49. Azotobacter and Clostridium are N2 fixing bacteria found in :
(1) Nodulated roots
(2) Free soil
(3) Leaves of plants
(4) None
Q50. Beijernick discovered:
(1) Nitrogen fixation
(2) Bacillus radicicola
(3) Nodule formation in legumes
(4) Both (2) & (3)
Explanation: In 1888 he isolated the bacterium Bacillus radicicola (later classified as a type of Rhizobium), which lives in the root nodules of leguminous plants. In the 1980s Peter Gresshoff and his team discovered the genes that cause too many nodules to be formed in soybeans that can damage the plant. More recently Ulrike Mathesius and Michael Djordjevic and their research teams have examined the genes and processes involved in the recognition of legumes and Rhizobia. If You need explanation of any of these following questions Or if you think there is a wrong answer then feel free and comment below, we will reply to you within 3- 5 minutes.
