Answer Key of BHU PET Applied Microbiology 2012 (Part 2)

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Answer Key of BHU PET Applied Microbiology 2012 (Part 1)

Answer key of BHU M. Sc (PET) Applied Microbiology Entrance Exam 2012. Download Old Question Papers of BHU Applied Microbiology from 2011 to 2019.

Answer Key of BHU PET Applied Microbiology
Answer Key of BHU PET Applied Microbiology

Q1. Frankia is ……….. . … organism.

(1) Symbiotic 

(2) Parasitic

(3) Ammonifying

(4) Putrifying

Q2. The limiting factor in the nitrification of soil is :

(1) pH

(2) Temperatur

(3) Air

(4) Light

Q3. Insecticides are special inhibitors of :

(1) Excretory system

(3) Nervous system

(2) Digestive system

(4) Blood circulatory system

Q4. Which form of nitrogen is most usable by plants?

(1) Nitrate

(2) Nitrite

(3) Nitrogen gas

(4) Ammonia

Q5. All of the following have an impact on the nitrogen cycle except:

(1) The application of inorganic fertilizers applied to the soil

(2) The action of aerobic bacteria acting on livestock wastes

(3) The overplanting of nitrogen-rich crops

(4) The discharge of municipal sewage

Q6. Plants assimilate sulphur primarily in which form?

(1) Sulphates

(2) Sulphites

(3) Hydrogen sulphide

(4) Sulphur di-oxide

Q7. During phosphorous cycle weathering makes phosphate available to :

(1) Tertiary consumers

(3) Consumer directly

(2) Producers

(4) Reservoir

Q8. The main nitrogen reservoir in the biosphere is :

(1) Rocks

(2) Oceans

(3) Atmosphere

(4) Organism

Q9. Which of the following limits the desert ecosystem?

(1) Water

(2) Nitrogen

(3) Phosphorous

(4) Both (1) and (2)

Q10 Water during its cycle falling on land enters:

(1) Surface Water

(2) Aquifers

(3) Groundwater

(4) All of the above

Q11. In nature carbon cycle is contributed by :

(1) Photosynthesis

(2) Respiration

(3) Fossil fuels

(4) All of the above

Q12. Cycling of the phosphorous occurs in the form of :

(1) HPO3 (-)

(2) PO4 (-3)

(3) P2 (a gas)

(4) None of the above

Q13. The stable water balance on the earth is maintained by:

(1) Evaporation

(2) Precipitation

(3) Surface runoff

(4) All of the above

Q14. Oxidation of ammonia into nitrite by chemo-synthetic bacteria is known as :

(1) Nitrification

(2) Denitrification

(3) Nitrogen fixation

(4) Transcription

Q15. The amount of oxygen required for oxidation by microbes in any unit volume of water is called:

(1) Dissolve Oxygen

(3) Eutrophication

(2) Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD)

(4) Surface flow

Q16. The unwanted sound dumped into the atmosphere leading to health hazards meant for:

(1) Water pollution

(2) Air pollution

(3) Noise pollution

(4) Radioactive pollution

Q17. The largest reservoir of carbon is the:

(1) Atmosphere

(2) Ocean

(3) Rocks

(4) Lake

Q18. In terms of the food chain or food pyramid, organisms that trap energy, such as plants are known as :

(1) Primary producer

(3) Primary consumer

(2) Secondary producer

(4) Secondary consumer

Q19. The biggest category of classification in biological taxonomy is :

(1) The phylum

(2) The kingdom

(3) The species

(4) The family

Q20. Organisms that break down and feed on wastes and dead organism arc called:

(1) Decomposer

(2) Orrmivores

(3) Autotrophs

(4) Producers

Q21. Which of the following is/ are example of proto-cooperation?

(1) Desulfavibrio and Chroma/ill”‘

(2) The Pompeii Worm and sulfur-oxidizing bacteria

(3) Shrimp Rimicans exomlata and filamentous sulfur-oxidizing bacteria

(4) All of the above

Q22. Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter interaction m the nitrogen cycle is an example of :

(I) Parasitism

(3) Commensalisms

(2) Protoco-operation

(4) Syntrophism

Q23. Which of the following is not one of the major environmental problems resulting from human interference in the nitrogen cycle?

(1) Stratospheric ozone depletion

(2) Increased acid rain

(3) Nitrous oxide release increases global warming

(4) Eutrophication

Q24. The primary reservoir of nitrogen is :

(1) The atmosphere

(2) Rocks

(3) Ammonia

(4) Nitrates

Q25. The term “activated sludge” is used for a common secondary treatment technique because:

(1) It is very short lived, and therefore active compared to primary treatment

(2) It requires many workers, who are actively on gated in maintaining the system

(3) It involves use of a mixture of detritus feeding organisms and is thus activated

(4) It is continually stirred and therefore activated

Q26. Chlorine is often added to wastewater for disinfection before effluent discharge. A Potential problem with the procedure is :

(1) The chlorine promotes cultural eutrophication

(2) Toxic chlorinated hydrocarbons may be formed

(3) Chlorine contributed to the depletion of the ozone layer

(4) Chlorine gas is poisonous and may threaten near by homes

Q27. An organism that can thrive at temperature between 60-80°C :

(I) Psychrophile

(2) Halophile

(3) Thermophile

(4) Extremophiles

Q28. A community used water and water-carried solids that flow to a treatment plant are called:

(I) Effluent

(2) Wastewater

(3) Sludge 

(4) Mixed liquor

Q29. A wastewater treatment plant may dispose of effluent by :

(1) Discharging onto land

(2) Evaporating into the atmosphere

(3) Discharging into receiving waters

(4) All of the above

Q30. The functional groups of proteins suitable for covalent binding under mild conditions include:

(1) The alpha-amino groups of the chain

(2) The alpha carboxyl group of the chain end

(3) Gamma carboxyl groups of ASP and GLU

(4) All of the above

Q31. What is the microbial source used for the production of rennet commercially?

(1) bacillus

(2) Pseudomonas

(3) Rhizomucor pusillus

(4) Pencillium notafum

Q32. GMO rennet was commercially produced by :

(1) Aspergillus niger

(2) Saccharomyces cerevisiae

(3) Penicillium spp.

(4) Spirulina

Q33. Serratiopeptidase is an anti-inflammatory enzyme produced by:

(1) Serratia

(2) BacilIus

(3) Streptococcus

(4) Pseudomonas

Q34. A synthetic ribozyme called gene shears is developed and directed against which disease?

(1) HIV

(3) Cancer

(2) Hypertension

(4) Alzheimer disease

Q35. Who developed an RNA enzyme system capable of self-replication in about an hour?

(1) Lincoln and Joyce

(2) Tang and Breaker

(3) Arne Tisetius

(4) Howard Martin Town

Q36. Among the following which is a renewable polymer used for the packaging industry?

(1) Poly styrene

(2) Polyethylene

(3) PLA

(4) PVC

Q37. The most commonly used surface attachment agent in biosensors is :

(1) Hydrogel

(2) PEG

(3) TEMED

(4) Nitrocellulose

Q38. Which bacteria is used as a biosensor for the analysis of low BOD in river water?

(1) E. coli

(3) Salmonella enteritidis

(2) Pseudomonas putida

(4) Lysteria monoeytogenes

Q36. Theinamycins is an antibiotic produced by :

(1) S. cattleya

(2) Nocardia uniformis

(3) Agrobacterium radiobaeter

(4) Flexibaeter

Q37. What is the oxidation state of ammonia, nitrite and nitrate?

(1) -3,+3,+5

(2) +5, + 3, + 2

(3) +1, +3, -3

(4) -3, + 3,-2

Q38. What is the electron acceptor used in the enrichment culture of denitrifying bacteria?

(1) Potassium chloride

(3) Potassium nitrate

(2) Potassium sulfate

(4) Potassium chromate

Q39. The first evidence for the oxidation of inorganic substance by an organism was given by :

(1) t.Schloesing and A.Mutz

(2) Winogradsky

(3) Robert Koch

(4) Alexander Fleming

Q40. What is the unusual sugar composition of O-polysaccharide?

(1) Colitose

(2) Mannose

(3) Rhamnose

(4) Galactose

Q41. What is the transducer that senses cobalt and nickel?

(1) CheW

(2) CheA

(3) tar

(4) cheY

Q42. Causal organism of “transmissible spongiform encephalopathies” such as Kuru disease” and Creutzfeldt Jacob Syndrome is :

(1) Bacteria

(2) Virus

(3) Prion

(4) Viroid

Q43. On the basis of structure to which category does the Smallpox virus belongs?

(1) RNA virus with icosahedral symmetry

(2) DNA virus with icosahedral symmetry

(3) DNA virus with complex symmetry

(4) RNA virus with helical symmetry

Q44. Which of the following class of antibiotics is most likely to fail against Gram-negative bacterium?

(1) Cell wall synthesis inhibitors

(2) DNA synthesis inhibitors

(3) RNA subunit binding inhibitors

(4) Peptidyl transferase inhibitors

Q45. During Gram Staining, Iodine acts as ‘a :

(1) Dye

(3) Mordant

(2) Decolorizing agent

(4) Indicator

Q46. Number of domains according to the latest system of classification is:

(1) 8

(2) 5

(3) 3

Q47. An F’ cell is:

(1) Bacterial cell containing F factor

(2) Bacterial cell lacking F factor

(3) Bacterial cell containing F factor as Prophage

(4) Bacterial cell containing modified F factor

Q48. Diglycerol diphenyl tetraether is found in the cell wall of :

(1) Archaebacteria

(2) Gram-Positive bacteria

(3) Algae

(4) Gram-Negative Bacteria

Q49. Enrichment culture technique was devised by :

(1) Beijerinck

(2) Ivanowsky

(3) Winogradsky

(4) Ehrlich

Q50. Which of the following phages doesn’t kill its bacterial host, but maintains a slow but continuous release of new phage even while host replicates?

(1) A phage

(2) T2 phage

(3) M13 phage

Q51. Lysogenic conversion is:

(1) Conversion of normal bacterial cell into lysogen

(2) Conversion of phage into prophage

(3) Changes in host bacterium due to prophage

(4) Conversion of lysogenic to lytic phage

Q52. The possible site for localization of Penicillin Binding Proteins, associated with peptidoglycan biosynthesis is :

(1) Outer membrane

(2) Inner membrane

(3) Peptidoglycan layer

(4) Intermembrane space

Q53. Genetic material of Rotavirus, causing Rotavirus Diarrhea are:

(1) Double-stranded DNA

(2) (+) strand of RNA

(3) (-) strand of RNA

(4) Double stranded RNA

Q54. Teichoic Acid is present in :

(1) Gram-negative cell wall

(3) Bacterial cellular membrane

(2) Gram-positive cell wall

(4) Bacterial cytoplasm

Q55. Which of the following microorganisms resides in host’s gut ?

(1) Hepatitis A virus

(2) Poliovirus

(3) Human Immunodeficiency Virus

(4) Influenza virus

Writer and Founder of Microbiologynote.com. I am from India and my main purpose is to provide you a strong understanding of Microbiology. Microbiologynote.com shares notes related to different branches of microbiology.

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